Environmental Geography

Environmental geography is the combination of the physical and human geography. A naturel resources is a source of wealth coming from our planet. peple can use resources for their advantage. we can use resourcs in our everyday life to drink, clean and wash

The word environmet derived from French word ‘environment’ which means ‘to surrounding’

Environment geography is the systematic description of different components of environment and interacting of man with it’s components.

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Copy - Copy - Environmental Geography_MOCK TEST_SET_1

1 / 50

1) Plant community may be defined as

Genetically different individuals having same phenotype

Genotypically similar individuals of a population

Genetically adapted ecological races

None of the above

2 / 50

2) Biotic potential is increased in population under

Natural conditions

Climate conditions

Optimum conditions

Given conditions

3 / 50

3) Soil erosion can be prevented by

Allowing herbivorous animals to graze excessively

Growing plants to from a soil cover

Making the land siopy

Increasing soil fertility

4 / 50

4) When the fertility of the soil is lost, it is

Soil erosion

Soil silting

Soil conservation

Soil coversion

5 / 50

5) Plants growing in saline soil or saline water are

Mesophytes

Hydrophytes

Halophytes

Psammophytes

6 / 50

6) Plants growing in cold soil are

Psychrophytes

Halophyyes

Oxylophytes

None of above

7 / 50

7) The most serious cause of soil erosion in lndia is

Deforestation

Drought conditions

Soil drifting by wind

Soil drifting by floods

8 / 50

8) Biome is

That part of the earth and it's atmosphere which inhibits living organism

A community of organisms interacting with each other

The flora on land

The flora in an ocean

9 / 50

9) Which among the following are mechanical methods of soil conservation?

1. Bunding

2. Terracing

3. Contour farming

4. Stubble mulching

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

10 / 50

10) The ecological processes follow the principal of uniformitarianism. The means

The ecological processes have a uniform effect

Same physical and biological processes that operate in the past

Physical and biological processes opcrate with a uniform rate

None of the above

11 / 50

11) The national air quality monitoring programme (NAMP) run by central pollution control board, monitor which of the following pollution at all locations?

1. Carbon dioxide

2. Sulphur dioxide

3. Oxides of nitrogen

4. Suspended particular matter

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

12 / 50

12) Which among these is / are a cryogenic indicator of climate change?

1. Ice sheets and ice chores

2. Sea level change

3. Lacustrine deposits

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

13 / 50

13) Ozone depletion would impact the plant eommunity in several ways. These include

1. Increase in photosynthesis

2. Decline in water use efficiency

3. Decline in yield of plants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

14 / 50

14) The energy flow in an ecosystem is :

1. Unidirectional

2. Non - cyclic

3. Cyclic

4. Bidirectional

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

15 / 50

15) Which among these would increase carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

1. Deforestation

2. Burning of firewood

3. Automobiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1,2 and 3

16 / 50

16) In ecological terms, what does the term " Standing crop " Signify?

Total weight of whole organic matter

Total weight of heterotrops

Total area covered by crops

None of the above

17 / 50

17) Which of the following is a part of the biogeochemical cycle?

1. Soils 2. Plant

3. Atrnosphere 3. Oceans

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

18 / 50

18) With reference to forest ecosystem, consider the following statement :

1. The number pyramid is neither inverted nor upward.

2. The biomass pyramid is inverted. Which of the statement given above is / are correct?

I only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

19 / 50

19) Consider the following statements. Identify the right once.

I. The convention on biological diversity (CBD) was approved in 1992 at the earth summit in Rio de Janeiro and came into force in 1993.

II. Under the conversation, governments are required to develop national biodiversity strategies and action plans.

I only

II only

Both

None

20 / 50

20) Which of the following measures is not a part of india's national biodiversity strategy and action plan?

Restoration and regeneration of degraded ecosystems

Recognition of community rights

Preventing deprivation of indigenous people from natural resources

Allowing free export of medicinal plant species

21 / 50

21) Which in the most important international agreement for conserving all biodiversity?

Convention on biological diversity

CITES

UNCLOS

Convention on ballast water

22 / 50

22) Which of the following methods is not ex situ conservation?

Breeding animals is a zoo

Setting up a botanical Garden

Establishing a national park

Setting up an aquarium

23 / 50

23) Which of the following methods is not an in situ conservation?

Setting up a national park

Establishing a reserve forest

Setting up a biosphere reserve

Building a seed bank

24 / 50

24) Consider the following statement. Identify the right oncs.

I. We need to conserve the biodiversity for the survival of human beings.

II. There are two main types of conservation: in situ and ex situ.

III. While in situ conservation projects species where they are, ex situ conservation projects species in a place away from the natural habitat.

I only

I and III only

II and III Only

All

25 / 50

25) Which in the first stage in the process of a species becoming irreversibly extinct?

Ecological extinction

Mass extinction

Local excited

Biological extinction

26 / 50

26) Where do we find the vast majority of species?

In the poorer countries

In the richer countries

In Europe

In the US

27 / 50

27) What are the eausses of biodiversity loss?

I. Habitat loss

II. Intensive agriculture

III. Pollution

IV. Fnvirunmental degradation

I and II only

II and III only

I only

All

28 / 50

28) Consider the following statement . Identify the right ones.

I. If an area is unusually rich in biodiversity and this flora and fauna are under a constant threat of Overexploitation , it is called a biodiversity hotspot.

II. There are about 25 such hotspots in the world, mostly in the tropical forests.

I only

II only

Both

None

29 / 50

29) Consider the following statement . Identify the right ones.

I. Sentinel species very sensitive indicators of environmental problem.

II. Keystone species play an important role in affecting many other organisms.

I only

II only

Both

None

30 / 50

30) What are not the cause responsibile for mass extinctions?

Global warming

Global cooling

Predation

Pollution

31 / 50

31) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Background extinction refers to the gradual disappcarancc of species due to change in local Cnvironmentnl conditions.

II. Mass extinction is charaetcrized by a rate of disappcarancc significantly higher than the background extinction.

I only

II only

Both

None

32 / 50

32) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Biological extinction of the species means the complctc disappcarancc of a species.

II. It is the ultimate fate of all species.

I only

II only

Both

None

33 / 50

33) Consider te following statement. Identify the right once. I. India is one of the 19 mega - biodiversity countries of the world. II. India can be divided into ten bio- geographic zones.

I only

II only

Both

None

34 / 50

34) Match the following

Plants Effective for diseases (a) Rosy periwinkle 1. Malaria (b) Cinchona 2.Hypertension (c) Coca 3. Leukemia (d) Rauwolfia 4. Anaesthesia serpentine

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 2 3 4

2 3 4 1

3 1 4 2

4 3 1 2

35 / 50

35) What are the important services provided by the biodiversity?

I. Ecological services

II. Geological services

III. Recreational services

IV. Genetic resources

I and II only

II and III only

I and IV only

All

36 / 50

36) Species which are not the natural inhabitants of the local habitat but are introduced into the system are called

Endangered species

Vulnerable species

Exotic species

Rare species

37 / 50

37) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Genetic biodiversity refers to the variation of gencs within species.

II. Species biodiversity refers to the varsity of species.

III. The hmand differences between ecosystem types and the diversity of habitats and ecological process occurring within each ecosystem type constitute the ecosystem diversity.

I and II only

II and III only

I and III only

All

38 / 50

38) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Biodiversity is our living wealth.

II. It is a result of hundreds of millions of years of evolutionary history.

I only

II only

Both

None

39 / 50

39) Consider the following statement, identify the right once. I. Biodiversity is a combination of two words, bio (life) and diversity (variety) II. It tefers to the varieties of plants , animals and micro -organism, the gence they contrain and the ecosystems they form.

I only

II only

Both

None

40 / 50

40) Consider the following statement, identify the right oncs. I. Biodiversity is a system in constant cvolution, from the view point of species, as well as from the view point of an individual organism. II. It is found evenly on the earth

I only

II Only

Both

None

41 / 50

41) How much of the total water of earth's surface fresh water is frozen as polar or glacial ice?

2.5 per cent

1.97 per cent

0.5 per cent

0.001 per cent

42 / 50

42) Which of the following is / are not inexhaustible natural resource?

Solar energy and wind power

Rainfall

Power of tides and hydropower

Minerals

43 / 50

43) Which of the following are non - renewable exhaustible natural resources?

Minerals

Biological species

Hydropower

Both A and B

44 / 50

44) Which of the following are exhaustible renewable resources?

Water and aquatic animals

Soil fertility

Natural vegetation and wildlife

All of the above

45 / 50

45) Animals and plants can be best protected in :

Sanctuaries

Zoos

National parks

Botanical gardens

46 / 50

46) A biosphere reserve preserves

Genetic resources of organisms

Traditional life styles of tribals

Wild population

All of the above

47 / 50

47) Rare (R) species are

Those which are in danger of extinction

Those which small population in certain geographical areas

Those which are found in silent valley of kerala

Those which are likely to be endangered

48 / 50

48) Vulnerable (V) species are those

Which live in national park

Which are wild

Which require conservation

Which are likely to be in danger of extinction in near future

49 / 50

49) Which is correct for threatened (T) species

It is a species to be conserved to avoid it's becoming rate, endangered or vulnerable species

It is an endangered species like rhino and Asiatic lion which are in danger of extinction

It is a vulnerable species like musk deer, black buck which are likely to move into endangered category in near future

It is a rare species like wild Asiatic ass with a small population in certain geographical areas

50 / 50

50) "Chipko movement " Is world ' s most known eco - development programme started by sunder lal bahuguna (1973) . It is related with :

Conservation of forests

Afforestation

Planting

Population

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The average score is 38%

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GEOGRAPHY MOCK TEST for_Feb_2023_set-2

1 / 48

1. Who among the following geographers specifically emphasized on climatic determinism?

Griffith Taylor

Friedrich Ratzel

Ellsworth Huntington

Ellen Churchill Semple

2 / 48

2. Match the following satellites with their altitudes and select the correct answer

Satellites Altitudes (km)

a. Land Sat V i. 832

b. IRS ii. 705

c. SPOT iii. 904

d. IKONOS iv. 681

Codes:

a b c d

ii iv i iii

iv i ii iii

iv ii iii i

ii iii i iv

3 / 48

3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Evaporation – The process of converting a liquid to a gas.

Condensation – The change of state from a gas to a liquid.

Element – A substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler substances by ordinary chemical or physical means.

Conduction – Tiny bits of particulate matter that serve as surfaces on which water vapors condenses.

4 / 48

4. Which one of the following methods is best suited to show the distribution of population with rural component and urban center of varying sizes in a region?

Uniform dot method

Multiple dot method

Uniform dot and circle method

Dot and sphere method

5 / 48

5. The ‘Vale of Kashmir’ lies between

PirPanjal and Karakoram Range

PirPanjal and Zaskar range

Zaskar and Ladakh range

Shiwalik and Ladakh range

6 / 48

6. The oldest religion of the Middle East is

Islam

Judaism

Christianity

Zoroastrianism

7 / 48

7. Which one of the following States recorded the lowest population density in India at 2011 Census?

Sikkim

Arunachal Pradesh

Nagaland

Mizoram

8 / 48

8. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Scholar) (Area of Specialization)

a. Brian Berry i. Regional Geography

b. Carl Sauer ii. Radical Geography

c. Dorreen Massey iii. Social Geography

d. O.H.K. Spate iv. Urban Geography

Codes:

a b c d

iv iii ii i

i ii iv iii

iii iv i ii

ii i iii iv

9 / 48

9. In developing countries, the population pressure increases in some parts due to immigration. Such parts are characterized by

Low cost of living

More suitable climate

Large employment opportunities

Accessibility

10 / 48

10. Which one of the following sequences of the steel-plants from East to West is correct in India?

Jamshedpur, Rourkela, Durgapur, Bhilai

Bhilai, Rourkela, Durgapur, Jamshedpur

Durgapur, Jamshedpur, Rourkela, Bhilai

Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai, Jamshedpur

11 / 48

11. Which of the following is not true about the Taiga Forests?

The forest cover is dominated by coniferous trees.

The forest floors are quite clear.

Tree growth is very fast.

The diameters of trees mostly range between 2 cm and 60 cm.

12 / 48

12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): In the core periphery model, the core region dominates whilst the periphery is dependent.

Reason (R): This dependence is structured mainly through relations of exchange and production between core and periphery.

Codes:

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

13 / 48

13. Which one of the following are the most important bases of Whittlesey’s classification of agriculture of the world?

Functional forms of agriculture

Distribution of climatic elements

Forms of livestock grazing activities

Regional distribution of the principal crops and animals of commercial significance

14 / 48

14. Which one of the following arrangements of glacial periods of Pleistocene Ice Age is in a correct chronological order?

Würm – Mindel – Gunz – Riss

Riss – Mindel – Wurm – Gunz

Mindel – Würm – Gunz – Riss

Gunz – Mindel – Riss – Würm

15 / 48

15. Which atmospheric gas filters out most of the ultraviolet radiation in sunlight?

Argon

Carbon dioxide

Ozone

Helium

16 / 48

16. Spatial resolution of LISS IV Sensor is

5.8 m

2.0 m

23.5 m

10.0 m

17 / 48

17. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Proponent Theory related with urban structure

Homer Hoyt – Sector theory

Sinclair – Concentric theory

Chris taller – Central place theory

Harris and Ullman – Multiple Nuclei theory

18 / 48

18. Nearest Neighbour analysis was evolved by

Henry and Raize

Clark and Evans

Zipf

Carl Pearson

19 / 48

19. Surface ocean currents derive their energy from

Salinity

Tectonics

Wind

Tsunamis

20 / 48

20. Which one of the following is not true about the native animal life of the rainy tropics?

An immense number and variety of insects.

Few arboreal fauna

Few grazing and carnivorous animals

Abundant aquatic life.

21 / 48

21. Followings are the names given to estate farming in different parts of the world. Match the correct pairs:

a. Latifundia i. Europe

b. Ranches ii. Anglo America

c. Fazendas iii. Latin America

d. Plantation iv. Asia

Codes:

a b c d

i iii iv ii

ii iii iv i

i ii iii iv

iv iii i ii

22 / 48

22. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Regions are mental concepts formulated to arrange earth features in some abstract order.

Regions could either be finite or infinite / boundless three dimensional extending much beyond the limits of terrestrial sphere.

The regional concept is a device to comprehend likenesses and differences on the earth surface.

A region has some kind of internal homogeneity which distinguishes it from the neighboring areas.

23 / 48

23. The rigid masses surrounding the geosyncline were termed by Kober as

Orogen

Kratogen

Primarumph

Zwischengebirge

24 / 48

24. Regionalism is the expression of

Ignorance of other regions

Parochialism

Sectionalism

Local individuality, local loyalties and cultural traits

25 / 48

25. The soils characterised by the dominant influence of climate are known as

Zonal soils

Intrazonal soils

Interzonal soils

Azonal soils

26 / 48

26. Which one of the following is not a glacio-fluvial depositional landform?

Esker

Drumlin

Kame

Horn

27 / 48

27. The concept of Teleology was propounded by

Alexander Von Humboldt

Carl Ritter

Oscar Peschel

Vidal de la Blasche

28 / 48

28. Which type of front has the steepest slope?

Warm front

Cold front

Stationary front

Occluded front

29 / 48

29. The concept of ‘Areal Differentiation’ is also termed as

Exceptionalism

Chorological Study

Systematic Geography

Regionalism

30 / 48

30. ‘Regions are good servants but bad masters’ was stated by

C.C. Carter

A.J. Herbertson

O.H.K. Spate

Vidal de la Blasche

31 / 48

31. Who among the followings has used for the first time the ranking coefficient method of agricultural productivity?

L.D. Stamp

Mohammad Shafi

M.G. Kendall

G. Eneydi

32 / 48

32. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Strabo – Published 17 volumes work entitled as geography

Ptolemy – Published a famous text called Almagest or GeographikeSyntaxis

Hipparchus – Designed orthographic and stereographic projections

Hecataeus – Invented an instrument known as ‘Astrolabe’ for determination of latitudes and longitudes

33 / 48

33. The regions developed along transportation lines or irrigation channels are called as

Transport regions

Axial regions

River-valley regions

Transitional regions

34 / 48

34. Which one of the following sub races does not belong to the Caucasoid race?

Eskimo

Celtic

Nordic

East Baltic

35 / 48

35. Gibbs-Martin Index is used for the measurement of

Crop specialization

Crop diversification

Crop concentration

Crop combination

36 / 48

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): On Hawaii Islands volcanic eruption are effusive type.

Reason (R): Less viscous lavas erupt quietly.

Codes:

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(R) is true, but (A) is false

37 / 48

37. Which one of the following used ‘Precipitation effectiveness’ and ‘Thermal efficiency’ as the basis of world’s climatic classification?

Trewartha

Thornthwaite

Koppen

Kendrew

38 / 48

38. Which one of the following objectives of Regional Planning is most important?

Cultivating habitability and community building

Conservation of forests

Rationalization of population distribution

Perfect regional mobility system

39 / 48

39. Especially high and low tides that occur near the times of new and full moons are called

Spring tide

Neap tide

Super tide

Fall tide

40 / 48

40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Cities and Towns) (NH Roads)

a. Madurai- Rameswaram i. NH-1

b. Varanasi- Kanyakumari ii. NH-2

c. Delhi-Kolkata iii. NH-7

d. New Delhi- Amritsar iv. NH-49

Codes:

a b c d

iv ii iii i

ii i iv iii

iv iii ii i

i ii iii iv

41 / 48

41. Which one of the following is correct sequence of contributors in the development of Greek Geography?

Anaximander, Herodotus, Hipparchus, Eratosthenes

Herodotus, Eratosthenes, Hipparchus, Anaximander

Anaximander, Eratosthenes, Herodotus, Hipparchus

Anaximander, Herodotus, Eratosthenes, Hipparchus

42 / 48

42. Which of the following tribes is known as true “jungle nomads”?

Pygmies

Semang

Masai

Kirghiz

43 / 48

43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): ‘Social indicator movement’ was quickly developed in 1960s in the United States of America (U.S.A.).

Reason (R): It grew in response to rise of a wide range of social problems in U.S. Society.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

44 / 48

44. Which one of the following migration types contributes most to population movement in India?

Rural to Rural

Urban to Rural

Rural to Urban

Urban to Urban

45 / 48

45. The most dominant blood group among the Mongoloid races is

46 / 48

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(River) (Types of Delta)

a. Mississippi i. Arcuate

b. Ganga ii. Bird-foot

c. Narmada iii. Abandoned

d. Old course of yellow iv. Estuarine

Codes:

a b c d

i ii iv iii

ii i iii iv

ii i iv iii

iv ii i iii

47 / 48

47. Which one of the following best describes surfaces air circulation in a Northern Hemisphere anticyclone?

Divergent – Clockwise

Convergent – Counter clockwise

Stationary

Inward – Clockwise

48 / 48

48. Who among the following geographers laid down the foundation of dichotomy of General versus Special Geography?

Bernhard Varenius

Immanuel Kant

Peter Apian

Sebastian Munster

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Teaching Aptitude_SET_1

1 / 15

1) The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be:

(A) encouraged to find answer independently

(B) advised to meet the teacher after the class

(D) advised not to disturb during the lecture

2 / 15

2) Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:

(A) discussion method

(B) lecture method

(D) text book method

3 / 15

3) Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:

(A) simple

(B) more knowledgeable

(D) interesting

4 / 15

4) The teacher’s role at the higher educational level is to:

(A) provide information to students

(B) promote self-learning in students

(D) help students to solve their personal problems

5 / 15

5) Which one of the following teachers would you like the most:

(A) punctual

(B) having research aptitude

(D) who often amuses his students

6 / 15

6) Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher:

(A) during the practice-teaching

(B) after the practice-teaching

(D) none of the above

7 / 15

7) Which is the least important factor in teaching?

(A) punishing the students

(B) maintaining discipline in the class

(D) drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board

8 / 15

8) Which of the following is not instructional material?

(A) Over Head Projector

(B) Audio Casset

(D) Transparency

9 / 15

9) Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning

(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge

(D) During Lecture Method students are passive

10 / 15

10) The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:

(A) To prepare students to pass examination

(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions

(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

11 / 15

11) Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Reliability ensures validity

(B) Validity ensures reliability

(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity

12 / 15

12) Which of the following indicates evaluation?

(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200

(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English

(D) All the above

13 / 15

13) Which of the following comprise(construct) teaching skill:

(A) Black Board writing

(B) Questioning

(D) All the above

14 / 15

14) Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

(A) Teachers can teach

(B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.

(D) Teachers are born.

15 / 15

15) Which of the following is/are the basic paradigms in classroom teaching?

(a) Learning paradigm

(b) Instructional paradigm

(d) None of the above

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The average score is 57%

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Environmental Geography_MOCK TEST_SET_1

1 / 50

1) Plant community may be defined as

Genetically different individuals having same phenotype

Genotypically similar individuals of a population

Genetically adapted ecological races

None of the above

2 / 50

2) Biotic potential is increased in population under

Natural conditions

Climate conditions

Optimum conditions

Given conditions

3 / 50

3) Soil erosion can be prevented by

Allowing herbivorous animals to graze excessively

Growing plants to from a soil cover

Making the land siopy

Increasing soil fertility

4 / 50

4) When the fertility of the soil is lost, it is

Soil erosion

Soil silting

Soil conservation

Soil coversion

5 / 50

5) Plants growing in saline soil or saline water are

Mesophytes

Hydrophytes

Halophytes

Psammophytes

6 / 50

6) Plants growing in cold soil are

Psychrophytes

Halophyyes

Oxylophytes

None of above

7 / 50

7) The most serious cause of soil erosion in lndia is

Deforestation

Drought conditions

Soil drifting by wind

Soil drifting by floods

8 / 50

8) Biome is

That part of the earth and it's atmosphere which inhibits living organism

A community of organisms interacting with each other

The flora on land

The flora in an ocean

9 / 50

9) Which among the following are mechanical methods of soil conservation?

1. Bunding

2. Terracing

3. Contour farming

4. Stubble mulching

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

10 / 50

10) The ecological processes follow the principal of uniformitarianism. The means

The ecological processes have a uniform effect

Same physical and biological processes that operate in the past

Physical and biological processes opcrate with a uniform rate

None of the above

11 / 50

11) The national air quality monitoring programme (NAMP) run by central pollution control board, monitor which of the following pollution at all locations?

1. Carbon dioxide

2. Sulphur dioxide

3. Oxides of nitrogen

4. Suspended particular matter

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

12 / 50

12) Which among these is / are a cryogenic indicator of climate change?

1. Ice sheets and ice chores

2. Sea level change

3. Lacustrine deposits

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

13 / 50

13) Ozone depletion would impact the plant eommunity in several ways. These include

1. Increase in photosynthesis

2. Decline in water use efficiency

3. Decline in yield of plants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

14 / 50

14) The energy flow in an ecosystem is :

1. Unidirectional

2. Non - cyclic

3. Cyclic

4. Bidirectional

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

15 / 50

15) Which among these would increase carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

1. Deforestation

2. Burning of firewood

3. Automobiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1,2 and 3

16 / 50

16) In ecological terms, what does the term " Standing crop " Signify?

Total weight of whole organic matter

Total weight of heterotrops

Total area covered by crops

None of the above

17 / 50

17) Which of the following is a part of the biogeochemical cycle?

1. Soils 2. Plant

3. Atrnosphere 3. Oceans

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

18 / 50

18) With reference to forest ecosystem, consider the following statement :

1. The number pyramid is neither inverted nor upward.

2. The biomass pyramid is inverted. Which of the statement given above is / are correct?

I only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

19 / 50

19) Consider the following statements. Identify the right once.

I. The convention on biological diversity (CBD) was approved in 1992 at the earth summit in Rio de Janeiro and came into force in 1993.

II. Under the conversation, governments are required to develop national biodiversity strategies and action plans.

I only

II only

Both

None

20 / 50

20) Which of the following measures is not a part of india's national biodiversity strategy and action plan?

Restoration and regeneration of degraded ecosystems

Recognition of community rights

Preventing deprivation of indigenous people from natural resources

Allowing free export of medicinal plant species

21 / 50

21) Which in the most important international agreement for conserving all biodiversity?

Convention on biological diversity

CITES

UNCLOS

Convention on ballast water

22 / 50

22) Which of the following methods is not ex situ conservation?

Breeding animals is a zoo

Setting up a botanical Garden

Establishing a national park

Setting up an aquarium

23 / 50

23) Which of the following methods is not an in situ conservation?

Setting up a national park

Establishing a reserve forest

Setting up a biosphere reserve

Building a seed bank

24 / 50

24) Consider the following statement. Identify the right oncs.

I. We need to conserve the biodiversity for the survival of human beings.

II. There are two main types of conservation: in situ and ex situ.

III. While in situ conservation projects species where they are, ex situ conservation projects species in a place away from the natural habitat.

I only

I and III only

II and III Only

All

25 / 50

25) Which in the first stage in the process of a species becoming irreversibly extinct?

Ecological extinction

Mass extinction

Local excited

Biological extinction

26 / 50

26) Where do we find the vast majority of species?

In the poorer countries

In the richer countries

In Europe

In the US

27 / 50

27) What are the eausses of biodiversity loss?

I. Habitat loss

II. Intensive agriculture

III. Pollution

IV. Fnvirunmental degradation

I and II only

II and III only

I only

All

28 / 50

28) Consider the following statement . Identify the right ones.

I. If an area is unusually rich in biodiversity and this flora and fauna are under a constant threat of Overexploitation , it is called a biodiversity hotspot.

II. There are about 25 such hotspots in the world, mostly in the tropical forests.

I only

II only

Both

None

29 / 50

29) Consider the following statement . Identify the right ones.

I. Sentinel species very sensitive indicators of environmental problem.

II. Keystone species play an important role in affecting many other organisms.

I only

II only

Both

None

30 / 50

30) What are not the cause responsibile for mass extinctions?

Global warming

Global cooling

Predation

Pollution

31 / 50

31) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Background extinction refers to the gradual disappcarancc of species due to change in local Cnvironmentnl conditions.

II. Mass extinction is charaetcrized by a rate of disappcarancc significantly higher than the background extinction.

I only

II only

Both

None

32 / 50

32) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Biological extinction of the species means the complctc disappcarancc of a species.

II. It is the ultimate fate of all species.

I only

II only

Both

None

33 / 50

33) Consider te following statement. Identify the right once. I. India is one of the 19 mega - biodiversity countries of the world. II. India can be divided into ten bio- geographic zones.

I only

II only

Both

None

34 / 50

34) Match the following

Plants Effective for diseases (a) Rosy periwinkle 1. Malaria (b) Cinchona 2.Hypertension (c) Coca 3. Leukemia (d) Rauwolfia 4. Anaesthesia serpentine

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 2 3 4

2 3 4 1

3 1 4 2

4 3 1 2

35 / 50

35) What are the important services provided by the biodiversity?

I. Ecological services

II. Geological services

III. Recreational services

IV. Genetic resources

I and II only

II and III only

I and IV only

All

36 / 50

36) Species which are not the natural inhabitants of the local habitat but are introduced into the system are called

Endangered species

Vulnerable species

Exotic species

Rare species

37 / 50

37) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Genetic biodiversity refers to the variation of gencs within species.

II. Species biodiversity refers to the varsity of species.

III. The hmand differences between ecosystem types and the diversity of habitats and ecological process occurring within each ecosystem type constitute the ecosystem diversity.

I and II only

II and III only

I and III only

All

38 / 50

38) Consider the following statement. Identify the right once.

I. Biodiversity is our living wealth.

II. It is a result of hundreds of millions of years of evolutionary history.

I only

II only

Both

None

39 / 50

I only

II only

Both

None

40 / 50

I only

II Only

Both

None

41 / 50

41) How much of the total water of earth's surface fresh water is frozen as polar or glacial ice?

2.5 per cent

1.97 per cent

0.5 per cent

0.001 per cent

42 / 50

42) Which of the following is / are not inexhaustible natural resource?

Solar energy and wind power

Rainfall

Power of tides and hydropower

Minerals

43 / 50

43) Which of the following are non - renewable exhaustible natural resources?

Minerals

Biological species

Hydropower

Both A and B

44 / 50

44) Which of the following are exhaustible renewable resources?

Water and aquatic animals

Soil fertility

Natural vegetation and wildlife

All of the above

45 / 50

45) Animals and plants can be best protected in :

Sanctuaries

Zoos

National parks

Botanical gardens

46 / 50

46) A biosphere reserve preserves

Genetic resources of organisms

Traditional life styles of tribals

Wild population

All of the above

47 / 50

47) Rare (R) species are

Those which are in danger of extinction

Those which small population in certain geographical areas

Those which are found in silent valley of kerala

Those which are likely to be endangered

48 / 50

48) Vulnerable (V) species are those

Which live in national park

Which are wild

Which require conservation

Which are likely to be in danger of extinction in near future

49 / 50

49) Which is correct for threatened (T) species

It is a species to be conserved to avoid it's becoming rate, endangered or vulnerable species

It is an endangered species like rhino and Asiatic lion which are in danger of extinction

It is a vulnerable species like musk deer, black buck which are likely to move into endangered category in near future

It is a rare species like wild Asiatic ass with a small population in certain geographical areas

50 / 50

50) "Chipko movement " Is world ' s most known eco - development programme started by sunder lal bahuguna (1973) . It is related with :

Conservation of forests

Afforestation

Planting

Population

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Created by

Nabarun Academy

GEOGRAPHY MOCK TEST for_Feb_2023_set-4

1 / 100

1. Who among the following scholars laid down the foundation of dichotomy of general versus special geography?

Immanuel Kant

Sebastian Munster

Bernhard Varenius

Peter Apian

2 / 100

2. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code giver below:

(a) Summation of ranks method is best suited to measure development levels, when data used are highly skewed

(b) Summation of ranks method is quite simple and easy to handle

(d) Use of Principal Component Analysis method should be avoided if inter-correlation among different components of development weak or doubtful

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

(a) and (b) are correct

(a), (b) and (d) are correct

(b) and (d) are correct

3 / 100

3. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Dimension of development)

(a) Economic

(b) Social

(d) Ecological and Environmental

List-II (Indicator of development)

(i) Percentage of reclaimed land to total waste land

(ii) Percentage of minority voters to total minority electors

(iii) Percentage of female literates to total female population

(iv) Agriculture production per hectare

i ii iii iv

ii iii iv i

iii iv i ii

iv iii ii i

4 / 100

4. Which one of the following sequences is the correct one in a littoral zone from land to sea?

Backshore, Foreshore, Nearshore, Offshore

Foreshore, Backshore, Nearshore, Offshore

Offshore, Nearshore, Foreshore, Backshore

Nearshore, Offshore, Backshore, Foreshore

5 / 100

5. Which one of the following is correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?

Blue-Green-Red-Ultraviolet

Red-Blue-Green-Ultraviolet

Ultraviolet-Blue-Green-Red

Ultraviolet-Green-Blue-Red

6 / 100

6. Which one of the following code is correct Rn value of the given distribution of 6 settlements of an area of gentle topography?

0.95

1.45

1.63

1.86

7 / 100

7. Which one of the following dates is correct for the normal withdrawal of south-west monsoon from Indian Territory?

September, 1

September, 5

September, 10

September, 15

8 / 100

8. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Force)

(a) Coriolis

(b) Tidal

(d) Resisting

List-II (Source)

(i) Earth’s gravity

(ii) Topographic differences

(iii) Static state

(iv) Earth’s rotation

Code:

iv ii iii i

iv iii ii i

iv i iii ii

iv i ii iii

9 / 100

9. Which one of the following is correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?

Blue-Green-Red-Ultraviolet

Red-Blue-Green-Ultraviolet

Ultraviolet-Blue-Green-Red

Ultraviolet-Green-Blue-Red

10 / 100

10. Which one of the following Models is explained by the given figure below?

Weber’s Model

Central Place Model

Von Thunen Model

Gravity Model

11 / 100

11.

Which one of the following criteria was used to demarcate 15 agroclimatic regions, which were accepted by the Planning Commission of India (now NITI Aayog) to initiate regional approach to agricultural planning during the eighth Five-Year Plan?

Climate, soil characteristics, and rainfall

Climate, soil characteristics and water availability

Climate, soil characteristics, rainfall and water availability

Climate, cropping pattern, rainfall and water availability

12 / 100

12. Which one of the followings is the main source for a vast reservoir of relatively inert nitrogen in homosphere?

Volcanc activities

Fossil fuel burning

Acid rain

Global warming

13 / 100

13. Which one of the following years the modern cotton textile mill was first of all established in Maharashtra?

1850

1854

1858

1862

14 / 100

14. Which one of the following groups of states of India recorded more than one fourth of total population of the country in the census year 2011?

Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Punjab

Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka

Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab

Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana

15 / 100

15. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Name of Dams)

(a) Mayurkashi

(b) Mettur

(d) Hirakud

List-II (States)

(i) Tamil Nadu

(ii) Andhra Pradesh

(iii) Odisha

iv i ii iii

i ii iii iv

iv iii ii i

iii ii iv i

16 / 100

16. Which one of the following statements indicates to the potential use of a service at a location according to Gravity Model?

Direct relationship to both population size and distance

Inverse relationship to both population size and distance

Direct relationship to both population size and inverse relationship to distance

Direct relationship to distance and inverse relationship to population

17 / 100

17. The book ‘Geography of Peace’ is authored written by:

Mahan

Spykman

Haushoffer

(4) Ratzel

18 / 100

18. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Economy)

(a) Subsistence Economy

(b) Commercial Economy

(d) Extensive Subsistence Economy

List-II (Features)

(i) Market competition as primary force shaping the production patterns

(ii) Self-sufficiency, low production an low population density

(iii) Self-sufficiency, high production and high population density

(iv) Little exchange of goods and only limited need for markets

ii iii i iv

iv i iii ii

iii ii iv i

i iv iii ii

19 / 100

19. The American climotologist C.W.Thornthwaite revised the scheme of the classification of world climates in which one of the following years?

1931

1934

1941

1948

20 / 100

20. In which of the following directions the Nazca Plate is moving?

East

West

South

North

21 / 100

21. Which one of the following organisations looks after the receiving and processing of remote sensing data in India?

SHAR Centre

SDS Centre

LPS Centre

NRSC

22 / 100

22. The term ‘Cosmography’ was coined and divided into ‘Uranography’ and Geography by:

Ritter

Peschal

Humboldt

Verinious

23 / 100

23. Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is fasmous for:

Engineering and Machine tools

Wool Textiles

Automobiler and Autocomponents

Dairy products

24 / 100

24. Which of the following characteristic features are possessed by the Nordic race of India?

Long stature and round face

Medium stature and round face

Medium stature and long face

Long stature and long face

25 / 100

25. Which one of the following equations represents a true mathematical characteristics of mean?

Σ (X − X̅) = minimum

Σ (X − X̅) = 0

Σ (X − X̅) = maximum

Σ (X − X̅) = infinite

26 / 100

26.

Which one of the following factors most dominants in the selections of high- tech firms of Silicon Valley in California?

Cheap labour

Access to the market

High speed transportation

Agglomeration economy

27 / 100

27. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Whitlessey’ Agricultural Religions)

(a) Commercial Dairy Farming

(b) Commercial Grain Farming

(d) Commericial Plantations

List-II (Name of Countries)

(i) Argentina

(ii) Sri Lanka

(iii) New Zealand

(iv) Mangolia

iii i iv ii

i ii iii iv

iv iii ii i

ii iv i iii

28 / 100

28. The U.N. Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro during June 3- 14, 1992 was chaired by:

Geogre W. Bush

Maurine F.Strong

Tony Blair

Rachel Carson

29 / 100

29. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A perspective plan may also be termed as long term plan

(2) Perspective plans are prepared for a period of 20-25 years

(3) A perspective plan do not ensure flexibility

(4) Perspective plan ensure spatial integration of plans at different hierarchical levels.

Only (a) is correct

(a) and (b) are correct

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

(a), (b) and (d) are correct

30 / 100

30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Radars are considered active sensors.

Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.

Code:

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

31 / 100

31. The formula ENYEDI AGRICULTURAL PRODUCTIVITY where PI= Agricultural Productivity Index; Y= Total production of selected crops in unit area; Yn= Total production of same selected crops at national level; T= Total cropped area of the unit; Tn = Total cropped area at national scale.

Bhatia

Enyedi

Weaver

Shafi

32 / 100

32. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Name of scholars developed scheme For delineation of planning regions)

(a) Bhat and Prakasarao

(b) P. Sengupta

(d) V. Nath

List-II (Period of being planned)

(i) 42

(ii) 35

(iii) 48

(iv) 51

Code:

i ii iii iv

ii iii iv i

iii iv i ii

iv i ii iii

33 / 100

33. Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of developmnt?

Development is a continuous process

Development is a multi- faceted processd

Development stands for growth without change

Meaning of development change in time and space.

34 / 100

34. In which one of the following book/work did Mackinder in 1919 renamed his theory of ‘pivot area’ as ‘Heartland’?

World war and geography

The Democratic ideals and Reality

The round world and the winning of the peace

Foreign Affairs

35 / 100

35. The Rimmer model for the development of land transport system in less developed economics was proposd in which of the following years?

1975

1976

1977

1978

36 / 100

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Energy flow shifts from production to respiration in the entrophic stage, with oxygen demand exceeding oxygen availability.

Reason (R): Stratospheric ozone layer depletion causes skin diseases.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

37 / 100

37. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Country)

(a) Luxembourg

(b) Algeria

(d) Kazakistan

List-II (Official Language)

(i) Arabic

(ii) Russian

(iii) French

(iv) Spanish

i iii ii iv

ii iv iii i

iii i iv ii

iv ii i iii

38 / 100

38. In a frequency distribution of X series having 6 integers wth missing one, X_i, among them, the parameters of calculating mean, X̅, are as ∑fx = 370 (excluding frequency of missing X_i which is f_i=10) ∑f=58 (including frequency of missing integer) and X̅ = 7.586. Which one of the following inters is approximately correct for missing X_i?

39 / 100

39. Which one of the following criteria was used to delineate the National Capital Region for planning purpose?

Functional unity and Physiographic characteristics

Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and demographic charateristics

Functional unity, Administrative contiguity and distance from New Delhi

Functional unity, Physiographic and demographic and Administrative contiguity

40 / 100

40. Which one of the following states in India recored the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?

Uttarakhand

Tamil Nadu

West Bengal

Himachal Pradesh

41 / 100

41. Which one of the following groups of states in Indian recorded Sex Ratio higher than 950 according to year 2011 census?

Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Telengana

Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra

Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh

Haryana, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh

42 / 100

42. Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the threshold according to Central Place Model?

Point at which consumer movement is minimum

Distance far which consumer will travel for a service

Minimum number of people needed to support a service

Economic base of a centre

43 / 100

43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The monsoon of southern and eastern Asia driven by the location and size of the Asian landmass and it

Reason (R): The wind and pressure patterns in the upper air circulation are associated with generation of monsoonal flows.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

44 / 100

44. The concept of geosyncline was propounded by:

Holmes

James Hutton

Hall and Dana

J.W. Powell

45 / 100

45. Jharkhand ranks third after which one of the following group of states in the availability of coal reserves in India?

West Bengal and Chhatisgarh

Odisha and Chhatisgarh

Odisha and West Bengal

Chhatisgarh and Karnataka

46 / 100

46. Which one of the following code is correctly depicting the pattern of distribution of population among cities by ‘d’ curve in the given graph?

Binary graph

Code:

Primate

Stepped order

Binary

Rank Size Rule

47 / 100

47. Peternoster Lakes are:

Lakes formed on glacial stair ways

Lakes having volcanic origin

Lakes formed by a shallow stretch of water caused by sea erosion

Cresent shaped lakes formed due to cut-off of a river meander

48 / 100

48. Which one of the following countries recorded highest population density as per U.N. Demographic Year Book, 2010?

India

Japan

Bangladesh

Pakistan

49 / 100

49. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Sectors of the Economy)

(a) Primary

(b) Secondary

(d) Quaternary

List-II (Activities)

(i) Research endavours

(ii) Train services

(iii) Pearl culture

(iv) Spinning cotton year

i ii iii iv

iii iv ii i

ii i iv iii

iv iii i ii

50 / 100

50. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the selection indicators for conducting any study of development process?

Either input or output indicators must be selected

Negative and positive indicators must not be clubbed with each other

Indicators must emerge out of the concept of development defined in the study.

Indicators of income and expenditure can be clubbed together

51 / 100

51. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Demographic terms)

(a) Cohart

(b) Natural increase

(d) Dependency ratio

List-II (Explanation)

(i) birth rate minus deah rate

(ii) A population group unified by a specific common characteristic

(iii) Average number of children that a woman will bear through her child bearing years

(iv) Measure in terms of number of dependants against productive age groups

iii iv ii i

ii i iii iv

i iv iii ii

iv ii i iii

52 / 100

52. The subsidence theory related to the coral reef was propounded by:

Davis

Darwin

Dally

Dana

53 / 100

53. A set of sample of 20 places of mean annual rainfall were randomly selected from a normally distributed universe that has mean rainfall of 320 cm. The sample mean was recorded 250 cm with standard of 150 cm. Which one of the following significance tests is correct for the selected samples?

Z – test

X2 – test

F – Test

t – test

54 / 100

54. Ice Cryatal Theory related to precipitation was postulated by:

Muir

Darwin

Bergeron

Boven

55 / 100

55. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Instrument)

(i) Soil density

(ii) Radiant energy

(iii) Relative Humidity

(iv) Distance

iii iv i ii

iii iv ii i

iv iii ii i

i ii iv iii

56 / 100

56. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Radars are considered active sensors.

Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.

Code:

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true

57 / 100

57. The present is the key to the past.” This phase is related to the concept of:

Isostasy

Diastrophism

Plate tectonics

Uniformatarianism

58 / 100

58. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is termed as:

Strike

Dip

Anticline

Free face

59 / 100

59. Whose works epitomized the relationship or political geography with foreign policy?

Adolf Hitler

Friedrich Ratzel

Mackinder

Karl Haushofer

60 / 100

60. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Map Type)

(a) Chorochromatic

(b) Choroschematic

(d) Isopleth

List-II (Information Content)

(i) Showing regional variation in distribution by shades

(ii) areal distribution by Tints

(iii) showing imaginary lines joining places of equal value

(iv) areal distribution by symbols

i iv ii iii

iv i iii ii

ii iv i ii

iv ii iii i

61 / 100

61. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): In low latitudes, sea water in the deep cold zone does not freeze.

Reason (R): The deep sea water does not remain under intense pressure because of its high salinity.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

62 / 100

62. Who among the following architect-planner prepared Master Plan for Chandigrah City?

Charles Correa

Frank Lloyd Wright

Edwin Lutyens

Le-Corbusier

63 / 100

63. Which one of the followings is the correct average range of worldwide variations is sea water salinity?

34% to 37%

27% to 29%

37% to 39%

21% to 26%

64 / 100

64. Which one of the following groups of natural elements in living matters make up more than 99% of Earth’s biomass?

H, O, C

N, CA, K

H, CA, N

S, H, Na

65 / 100

65. Which one of the following in the correct sequences of German geographers contributing to the developemnt of geographical thought?

Ratzel – Troll – Hettner – Peschel

Peschel – Hettner – Ratzel – Troll

Peschel – Ratzel – Hettner – Troll

Troll– Hettner – Peschel – Ratzel

66 / 100

66. On a topographical map of 1:50,000 scale the contour interval is given as 10 meters. Place ‘A’ is situated on a contour of 200 m MSL and another place ‘B’ is located on a contour of 240m MSL. The distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ on the map is 4.0 cms. The correct gradiant between ‘A’ and ‘B’ therefore would be:

1/30

1/40

1/50

1/60

67 / 100

67. ‘The same environment carries different meanings to people with different ways of living and culture’. This statement is related to which one of the following concepts?

Probablism

Determinism

Possibilism

Stop and Go Determinism

68 / 100

68. Which of the following pairs does not match?

Authors Book

Al – Masudi Router and Realms

Al – Balaki Kitabul Ashkal

Al – Biruni Kitab – al- Hind

Ibn – Khaldun Muqaddimah

69 / 100

69. The concept of panplan was propagated by:

C.A. Cotton

Von Ricthofen

Crickmay

Alfred Von Wegener

70 / 100

70. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Emitter)

(a) Decaying plants

(b) Volcanoes

(d) Forest fires

List-II (Emitted Products)

(i) Carbon monoxide

(ii) Salt spray

(iii) Hydrogen sulphide

(iv) Sulfur oxides

iii iv i ii

iii iv ii i

iii ii iv i

ii iii i iv

71 / 100

71. Which one of the following latitudes s known as the ‘Calms of Cancer’?

66 ½⁰ S

66 ½⁰N

25⁰N

25⁰ S

72 / 100

72. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Thornthwait’s Temperature Provinces)

(a) Mesothermal

(b) Microthermal

(d) Tundra

List-II (T/E Index Values)

(i) 16-31

(ii) 1-15

(iii) 64-127

(iv) 32-63

iv iii ii i

i ii iii iv

iii iv i ii

ii i iv ii

73 / 100

73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The partition of India in 1947 provided an impetus for town planning activities in the country.

Reason (R): Resettlement of displaced persons and providing them employment opportunities created a big opportunity before the town planners to construct new town and make provision of amenities and facilities in existing towns especially in north Indian states.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

74 / 100

74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): India has not been able to bridge its trade deficity.

Reason (R): India’s exports in terms of value has been declining.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

75 / 100

75. Which one among the following perspectives was responsible for radical transformation in the sprit and purpose of geography?

Structuralism

Post – modernism

Humanism

Quantification

76 / 100

76. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Name of City)

(a) Kanchipuram

(b) Jaisalmer

(d) Bhilai

List-II (Period of being planned)

(i) Post-Independence

(ii) Colonial

(iii) Medieval

(iv) Ancient

i ii iii iv

ii iii iv i

iii iv i ii

iv iii ii i

77 / 100

77. In India how many are the officially recognised languages?

78 / 100

78. Which of the following scholars is the proponent of the turbidity current theory on origin of submarine canyons?

Salin

Gregory

Daly

Harry Hen

79 / 100

79. Which one of the following countries holds the first rank in commercial dairy farming?

USA

India

China

Pakistan

80 / 100

80. Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of developmnt?

Development is a continuous process

Development is a multi- faceted processd

Development stands for growth without change

Meaning of development change in time and space.

81 / 100

81. Which one of the following conditions Alfred Weber introduced in his concept of ‘Locational Triangle’?

Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are found universally

‘R1’ is fixed but ‘R2’ is found everywhere and both are pure

Both ‘R1’ and R2 are fixed and pure

Both ‘R1’ and ‘R2’ are fixed and gross

82 / 100

82. Which school of thought first developed the idea of possiblism?

Russian School

German School

British School

French School

83 / 100

83. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Countires)

(a) Liberia

(b) Guinea

(d) Niger

List-II (Mineral Reserve)

(i) Argentina

(ii) Sri Lanka

(iii) New Zealand

(iv) Mangolia

iv iii ii i

i iv iii ii

ii i iv iii

iii ii i iv

84 / 100

84. “The dominant idea of all geographical progress is that of terrestrial unity”. This statement is attributed to:

Friedrich Ratzel

Vidal de la Blache

Richard Hartshorne

Jean Brunhes

85 / 100

85. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Names of Books)

(a) Human Universals

(b) The Social Conquest of the Earth

(d) Coevolution

List-II (Names of Authors)

(i) W.H. Durham

(ii) Donald E. Brown

(iii) Edward O-Wilson

i ii iii iv

iv i ii iii

ii iii iv i

iii iv i ii

86 / 100

86. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between the:

Crust and mantle

Mantle and core

Upper Core and Lower Core

Upper Mantle and Lower Mantle

87 / 100

87. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Process)

(a) Decomposition

(b) Transpiration

(d) Photosynthesis

List-II (Outcome)

(i) CO2

(ii) O2

(iii) CH4

(iv) Water Vapour

i iv ii iii

iv iii i ii

iii iv i ii

iii iv ii i

88 / 100

88. Among the following scholars, who introduced the concept of ‘Least-Transport-Cost Location’ using the frame of ‘Location triangle’?

W.Isard

M.K Bandman

D.M. Smith

A. Weber

89 / 100

89. The Hydraulic Slope Theory was propunded by:

R.E. Horton

Darwin

Penck

Mallot

90 / 100

90. Which of the following catagories does Chile belong to its physical shape?

Compact and elongated

Elongated

Fragmented and elongated

Fragmented

91 / 100

91. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Ocean Trench)

(a) Tonga

(b) Kuril Kamchatka

(d) Romanche

List-II (Depth in meters)

(i) 7760

(ii) 10540

(iii) 10880

(iv) 10500

i ii iii iv

iii iv ii i

iv iii i ii

ii i iv iii

92 / 100

92. Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh is known for which one of the following are deposits?

Bauxite

Anthracite

Magnetite

Muscovite

93 / 100

93. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A perspective plan may also be termed as long term plan

(2) Perspective plans are prepared for a period of 20-25 years

(3) A perspective plan do not ensure flexibility

(4) Perspective plan ensure spatial integration of plans at different hierarchical levels.

Code:

Only (a) is correct

(a) and (b) are correct

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

(a), (b) and (d) are correct

94 / 100

94. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List – I (Settlement Alignment)

List – II (Settlement Pattern)

(i) Uniform

(ii) Star Shaped

(iii) Linear

(iv) Cluster

Code:

ii iii iv i

iii iv ii i

i ii iii iv

iv iii ii i

95 / 100

95. The Organic Theory of state was propounded by:

Ratzel

Mackinder

Isaiah Bowman

Haushoffer

96 / 100

96. Which one of the following instrument is used for determination of degree of stability or instability of an air parcel?

Viscometer

Radiosondes

SONAR

pH meter

97 / 100

97. Which one of the following scales is correctly measure the rank-size distribution of settlements?

Nominal

Ordinal

Interval

Ratio

98 / 100

98. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Antartica is constantly snow-covered but receives less than 8cm annual precipitatiuon.

Reason (R): Constant speedy wind blow in Antarctica.

Code:

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

99 / 100

99.

Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Country)

(a) Luxembourg

(b) Algeria

(d) Kazakistan

List-II (Official Language)

(i) Arabic

(ii) Russian

(iii) French

(iv) Spanish

i iii ii iv

ii iv iii i

iii i iv ii

iv ii i iii

100 / 100

100. Who among the following scholars emphasized on the Behavioural Approach in Geography?

Johnston

Kirk

Burton

Gregory

Your score is

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PAPER ONE MOCK TEST_5

1 / 50

1. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.

Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true and (R) is false.

Both (A) and (R) are false.

2 / 50

2. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

Mathematical

Psychological

Analogical

Deductive

3 / 50

3. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

4 / 50

4. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Codes:

(a), (c), (e) and (f)

(b), (d), (e) and (f)

(a), (b), (c) and (d)

(a), (d), (e) and (f)

5 / 50

5. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

Prior experience of the learner

Educational status of the parents of the learner

Peer groups of the learner

Family size from which the learner comes.

6 / 50

6. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

Aunt

Mother

Sister

Daughter

7 / 50

7. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) wasteland development

(d) brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(a), (b) and (d) only

(b), (c) and (d) Only

(a), (c) and (d) Only

(a), (b), (c) and (d)

8 / 50

8. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?

P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

P only

Q only

P and Q only

P and R only

9 / 50

9. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

2013

2014

2015

2016

10 / 50

10. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:

(a) Kilobyte

(b) byte

(d) Terabyte

(e) Gigabyte

(f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code:

(f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)

(f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

(f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

11 / 50

11. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

Selective expectation of performance

Selective affiliation to peer groups

Selective attention

Selective morality

12 / 50

12. The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.

Answer questions 31 – 35 based on the data contained in the table.

The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?

2013

2014

2015

2016

13 / 50

13. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message?

To: ram@test. com

CC: raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

BCC: swami@test. com; rama@test. com

ram@test. com

ram@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

ram@test. com; rama@test. com

ram@test. com; rama@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

14 / 50

14. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.

It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.

It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

15 / 50

15. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

Preparing research summary

Presenting a seminar paper

Participation in research conference

Participation in a workshop

16 / 50

16. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?

(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.

(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.

(d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(b) and (d) only

(a) and (d) only

(a), (c) and (d) only

(a) and (b) only

17 / 50

17. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:

16, 40

20, 50

28, 70

32, 80

18 / 50

18. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:

State and Central Universities

Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities

IITs and IISc

19 / 50

19. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:

(a) The United States of America

(b) Australia

(d) United Kingdom (UK)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a), (b), (c) and (d)

(a), (b) and (c) only

(a), (c) and (d) only

(a) and (c) only

20 / 50

20. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(a), (b) and (d)

(b), (c) and (e)

(a), (c) and (f)

(d), (e) and (f)

21 / 50

21. There are two sets given below.

Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set – I (Research types)

(a) Fundamental research

(b) Applied research

(d) Evaluative research

Set – II (Characteristics)

(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions

(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations

(v) Enriching technological resources

Set – I (Research types)	Set – II (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research	(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention
(b) Applied research	(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building
(c) Action research	(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions
(d) Evaluative research	(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations
	(v) Enriching technological resources

Codes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(v) (iv) (iii) (i)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

22 / 50

22. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).

Premises:

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code:

(a) and (b)

(b) and (c)

(d) and (a)

23 / 50

23. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

TPP > RE > LHP > NE

TPP > LHP > RE > NE

LHP > TPP > RE > NE

LHP > TPP > NE > RE

24 / 50

24. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

Following the prescribed format of a thesis

Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique

Defining the population of research

Evidence based research reporting

25 / 50

25. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?

2.64

2.72

2.79

2.85

26 / 50

26.

What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 – 2016?

104

102.1

108

100.1

27 / 50

27. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:

(a) the central information Commissioner

(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner

(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for women

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a), (b), (c) and (d)

(a), (b) and (c) only

(a), (c) and (d) only

(a), (b) and (d) only

28 / 50

28. More productive employment demands:

Pervasive use of technology

Limiting competitive market place

Geo-political considerations

Large industries

29 / 50

29. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.

Select the correct code for your answer:

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

30 / 50

30. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules

(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a), (b), (c) and (d)

(a), (b) and (c) only

(a), (b) and (d) only

(a) and (b) only

31 / 50

31. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this?

Universal Serial Bus Mouse

Faster Random Access Memory

Blu Ray Drive

Solid State Hard Drive

32 / 50

32. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

Earthquakes

Landsides

Hurricanes

Droughts

33 / 50

33. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

Law of identity

Unchangeability in nature

Harmony in nature

Uniformity of nature

34 / 50

34. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

(a) and (b)

(a) only

(b) only

35 / 50

35. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.

36 / 50

36. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

LOQOZEH

HLZEOOQ

ZELHOQO

LQOOFZH

37 / 50

37. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

38 / 50

38. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:

ZKU

ZCA

ZKW

ZKU

39 / 50

39. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

Set – I (Method of teaching)

(a) Lecturing

(b) Discussion in groups

(d) Programmed Instructional procedure

Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)

(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided

(ii) Production of large number of ideas

(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language

(iv) Use of teaching-aids

(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Set – I (Method of teaching)	Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing	(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(b) Discussion in groups	(ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming	(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional procedure	(iv) Use of teaching-aids
	(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Code:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(iii) (v) (ii) (i)

(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

40 / 50

40. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

Unregulated small scale industry

Untreated sewage

Agricultural run-off

Thermal power plants

41 / 50

41. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Codes:

Less pollution

Wastage of precious natural resources

Low value addition

Hurting the poorest most

42 / 50

42. The advantage if technological inputs would result in:

Unbridled technological growth

Importing plant machinery

Sideling environmental issues

Lifting our people to a life of dignity

43 / 50

43.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15:

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimensions, time, and offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?

(a) Aspirations of people

(b) Modern day dynamism

(d) Strategic interests

Code:

Aspirations of people

Modern day dynamism

Economy in the global context

Strategic interests

44 / 50

44. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Codes:

(a), (b) and (c)

(b), (c) and (d)

(a), (c) and (e)

(b), (d) and (f)

45 / 50

45. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:

2012

2013

2014

2015

46 / 50

46. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ________, … is

47 / 50

47. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?

P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.

Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.

P Only

Q Only

P and Q

Neither P nor Q

48 / 50

48. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Codes:

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

49 / 50

49. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code:

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

50 / 50

50. Envisioning a developed India requires:

Aspiration to become a major economics player

Dependence upon projects designed abroad

Focus on short-term projects

Development of core technological strengths

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Bloom's Taxonomy MOCK TEST

1 / 5

1) Which of the following is the domain of learning according to Bloom?

1. Professional

2. Experimental

3. social

4. Affective

2 / 5

2) Basedon taxonomy of educational objectives, the ability to understand the meaning of material is known as

1. Knowledge

2. Responding

3. comprehend

4. Application

3 / 5

3) According to the revised Bloom's taxonomy, which of the following categories is considered to be highest for the learner?

1. comprehension

2. Apply

3. Analys

4. Evolution

4 / 5

4) The three domains of Bloom's taxonomy are:

1. Social, Affective and Psychomotor

2. Cognitive, Affective and Psychomotor

3. Cognitive, Affective and Evaluation

4. Cognitive, Pedagogy and Psychomotor

5 / 5

5) Which of the following is NOT an affective domain?

1. Receiving

2. Analysing

3. Valuing

4. Organising

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The average score is 67%

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GEOGRAPHY MOCK TEST for_Feb_2023_set-5

1 / 50

1) A map with the scale of 1/50,000 is enlarged to 5-times, which one of the following scales is correct for the enlarged map ?

1/250,000

1/100,000

1/10,000

1/2,500

2 / 50

2) Which one of the following diagrams is most suitable for depicting the distribution of urban land-use types of spatially spread urban centres ?

Histogram

Sphere

Bar

Pie

3 / 50

3) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List - I List - II

(Satellites) (Countries)

i. IRS a. India

ii. SPOT b. Europe

iii. ENVI SAT c. U.S.A

iv. IKONOS d. France

Codes:

a b c d

I IV III II

I III IV II

II I III IV

IV III I II

4 / 50

4) Which one of the following averages is not a measure of central tendency ?

Harmonic mean

Geographic mean centre

Geometric mean

Arithmetic mean

5 / 50

5) Which one of the following statistical techniques involves a large number of variables to be summarised into smaller dimensions ?

Chi-square

Correlation

Factor Analysis

Regression

6 / 50

6) Find the sequence of higher to lower rainfall from the following areas of India :

i. Ganga Delta

ii. Sahyadri

iii. Eastern U.P.

iv. Northern Gujarat

i, ii, iii, iv

ii, i, iii, iv

iii, iv, ii, i

iv, iii, ii, i

7 / 50

7) Which one of the following number of states is correct for ‘Empowered Action-Group- States’ of India ?

8 / 50

8) Which one of the following statements indicates the chief characteristics of the Policentric city ?

Circumferential urban beltway

Replacing sub-urban to urban

All roads lead to downtown

Many downtowns

9 / 50

9) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List - I List - II

(Major Rivers) (Tributaries)

a. Vaigai i. Tista

b. Cauvery ii. Yamuna

c. Brahmaputra iii. Suruli

d. Ganga iv. Amaravati

Codes:

a b c d

I III IV II

III IV II I

III IV I II

I III II IV

10 / 50

10) The Pir Panjal range lies in

Outer Himalayas

Trans Himalayas

Greater Himalayas

Middle Himalayas

11 / 50

11) Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :

List - I List - II

(Book) (Geographer)

a. Geographia i. Alexander von Humbold

b. Cosmos ii. Reclus

c. Nations and Nationalities iii. Ratzel

d. Anthropogeography iv. Strabo

II III I IV

I II III IV

IV I II III

III II IV I

12 / 50

12) Regional Imbalances of Economic development largely affected by which of the following factors ?

Regional disparity in resources

Lesser resource utilization

Lack of education

Lesser demand of the people

13 / 50

13) 'The Eardkunde’ was published in the year 1817. Which one of the following authored the book ?

O. Peschel

Carl Ritter

W.M. Davis

G. Taylor

14 / 50

14) Which of the following geographers defined region as : “A geographic area unified culturally, unified at first economically and later by consensus of thought, education, recreation etc. which distinguishes it from other areas.” ?

Vidal de la Blache

A.J. Herbertson

R.E. Dickinson

K. Young

15 / 50

15) India has been divided into 13 Macro Planning regions. Which of the following authors have delineated planning regions of India ?

P. Sen Gupta and Sadasyuk Gailina

R.P. Mishra, K.V. Sundaram and V.L.S. Prakasa Rao

L.S. Bhatta

O.H.K. Spate & Learmonth

16 / 50

16) Which of the following names of shifting cultivation in Orissa is correct ?

Podu

Bewar

Pendo

Jhum

17 / 50

17) Which one of the following factors affecting more at present to the voting behaviour in India ?

Development

Caste system

Religion base

Old base of political parties

18 / 50

18) What do you mean by ‘Lebensraum’ in political geography ?

Dead space

Living space

Administrative unit

Religious organisation

19 / 50

19) Who propounded the Heartland Theory used in political geography ?

Alfred Mackinder

O.H.K. Spate

Arthur Geddes

J.A. Steers

20 / 50

20) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Panchayati Raj Act empowered local bodies participation in planning process.

Reason (R) : Panchayati Raj institutions are having three tier systems in planning and executing development projects within their jurisdiction.

Codes :

(A) is correct, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

21 / 50

21) Who developed the technique to measure the agricultural efficiency ?

S.S. Bhatia

R.L. Singh

S.M. Rafiullah

L.D. Stamp

22 / 50

22) What is the ideal minimum temperature for growth of sugarcane ?

10 °C

15 °C

20 °C

25 °C

23 / 50

23) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : China has the very fast growing economy of the world.

Reason (R) : China has rich mineral resources and huge diversified labour force.

Codes :

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation.

24 / 50

24) Which one of the following factors is more crucial for agricultural development ?

Tractors

Fertilizers

Irrigation

Gentle slope

25 / 50

25) Among the following natural resources which resource is providing more livelihood to the people ?

Water

Land

Forest

Mineral

26 / 50

26) The decadal growth of population (1991-2001) according to the 2001 Census is

23.86%

21.34%

24.66%

24.80%

27 / 50

27) Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The very high population density of more than 400 persons / km² extends from upper Indus-Satlaj-Ganga Brahmaputra Valley and Delta.

Reason (R) : This phenomena is attributed to rich alluvial soils, flat land, rice and wheat cultivation, irrigation facilities and favourable climatic conditions.

Codes :

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is correct.

28 / 50

28) Which State in India has recorded the lowest growth rate during 2001-2011 Census ?

Kerala

West Bengal

Rajasthan

Bihar

29 / 50

29) Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :

List - I (State) List - II (Tribes)

a. Arunachal Pradesh i. Adiyam, Kammar, Kondkapp

b. Jammu & Kashmir ii. Asur, Birhor, Lepcha, Korwa

c. West Bengal iii. Dafla, Khampti, Singpho

d. Kerala iv. Garra, Gaddi

Codes:

a b c d

iv iii i ii

iv i iii ii

iii iv ii i

iii ii iv i

30 / 50

30) Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :

List - I List - II

(Authors) (Settlements)

a. Christaller (i) Market Centres

b. Galphin (ii)Industrial Nodes

c. Losch (iii) Central Places

d. Weber (iv) Rurban Centres

Codes:

a b c d

III IV I II

IV III II I

I II III IV

II I IV III

31 / 50

31) The philosophical view advocating that man is responsible for making his own nature is known as

Positivism

Functionalism

Existentialism

Pragmatism

32 / 50

32) The concept of ‘Spread’ and ‘Backwash’ effects was introduced by

A.O. Hirschman

Gunnar Myrdal

Gunder Frank

Sameer Amin

33 / 50

33) Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :

List - I List - II

a. Unity in Diversity i. Vidal-de-la Blache

b. Social Determinism ii. Jean Brunhes

c. Terrestrial Whole iii. Carl Ritter

d. Interaction iv. Frieduch Ratzel

Codes:

a b c d

III II IV I

IV II I III

III IV I II

II I IV III

34 / 50

34) The term ‘Cosmography’ was coined by

Mackinder Halford J.

Humbolt

Kant Emmanuel

Ptolemy

35 / 50

35) “The Principles of Human Geography” was authored by

E. Huntington

H.H. Borrow

F. Ratzel

E.C. Semple

36 / 50

36) The Gulf Stream and the Kuroshio Current move forcefully northward as a result of

Western intensification

Eastern intensification

Northern intensification

Southern intensification

37 / 50

37) The average depth of ‘equatorial-counter’ current is

50 m

100 m

150 m

200 m

38 / 50

38) The “wave-cut platform” is found in

California coast

Hokkaido coast

Madagascar coast

Malabar coast

39 / 50

39) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List - I List - II

a. Gour i. Lithosphere

b. Graben ii. Littoral zone

c. Gabro iii. Aeolian area

d. Groin iv. Orogenic belt

Codes:

a b c d

III IV I II

III IV II I

II IV III I

III II I IV

40 / 50

40) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Deforestation result in the increase of concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Reason (R) : Forests utilise carbon dioxide during the process of photosynthesis for manufacturing of food.

Codes :

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

41 / 50

41) Find combination of two given areas where rainfall is characterised by Tropical monsoon rain.

(i) The Sahyadri

(ii) The Ganga Delta

(iii) Kashmir Valley

(iv) Ladakh Region

(i) and (iii)

(ii) and (iv)

(i) and (ii)

(iii) and (iv)

42 / 50

42) In the List – I given the names of local wind and List – II given the names of the area. Match correctly List – I and List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List - I

(Local Wind)

List - II

(Area)

a. Loo

i. The Rockies

b. Khamsin

ii. The Alps

c. Chinoock

iii. Rajasthan Desert

d. Fohn

iv. Egypt

Codes:

a b c d

I II III IV

III IV I II

II IV III I

IV III II I

43 / 50

43) The rain-fed and rain-shadow areas are the characteristics of the

Cyclonic rainfall

Convectional rainfall

Orographic rainfall

Thermal rainfall

44 / 50

44) Find out the correct sequence of planetary winds found from the equator to pole.

Westerlies, Trade, Polar wind

Trade, Westerlies, Polar wind

Trade, Polar wind, Westerlies

Polar wind, Westerlies, Trade

45 / 50

45) Which one of the following is not a factor to affect the atmospheric pressure ?

Altitude

Presence of water vapour

Temperature

Rainfall

46 / 50

46) What is the major wind related phenomenon responsible for summer drought in Mediterranean type of region ?

Shifting of trade winds polewards in summers.

Shifting of trade winds equatorwards in summers

Blowing of Westerlies from the continents in summers.

Blowing South-Westerly.

47 / 50

47) The basaltic ocean crust has an average density of

2.65 g/cm3

2.75 g/cm3

2.90 g/cm3

3.0 g/cm3

48 / 50

48) Hydration process belongs to

Physical and Biological processes

Physical and Chemical processes

Biological and Chemical processes

Chemical processes

49 / 50

49) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List - I

(Concept/Theory)

a. Base level

List - II

(Put forwarded by

i. G.K. Gilbert

b. Parallel retreat

ii. W. Penck

C. Cycle of erosion

iii. J.W. Powell

d. Stream competency and capacity

iv. W.M. Davis

Codes:

a b c d

III II IV I

II I III IV

III II I IV

II IV I III

50 / 50

50) The term ‘active layer’ is associated with

Fluvial deposition

Periglacial processes

Plate tectonic

Processess of soil formation

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Geography_SET_1

1 / 100

53. Match the following:
Pressure Belts:
(a) Equatorial Low Pressure Belt
(b) Subtropical High Pressure Belt
(c) Subpolar Low Pressure Belt
(d) Polar High Pressure Belt
Latitudes:
(1) 25º–35º North and South
(2) 5º–5º North and South
(3) 60º–65º North and South
(4) 85º–90º North and South
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (1) (3) (4)

(B) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(D) (4) (3) (2) (1)

2 / 100

77. As per the United Nations, when did the world
population reach the one billion mark for the first time?

(A) 1787

(B) 1804

(D) 1927

3 / 100

50. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Geologic Periods/Epochs) (Life Forms)
(a) Triassic (i) Origin of man
(b) Jurassic (ii) Rise of birds and
flying reptiles
(c) Pleistocene (iii) Rise of archaic
animals
(d) Pliocene (iv) Rise of dinosaurs
On the basis of above information choose the correct
alternative from the following codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

4 / 100

100. S.B. Jones’ view of states was based on the idea of

(A) Deutsch, Gottman and Hartshorne

(B) Mackinder, Gottman and Hartshorne

(D) Ratzel, Hartshorne and Johnston

5 / 100

99. Empiricism is associated with whom?

(A) John Locke

(B) David Hume

(D) Edmund Husserl

6 / 100

98. Arrange the following binaries and identify the

correct option:

a. General I. Emotional

b. Explanation II. Complexity

c. Objectivity III. Particular

d. Order IV. Interpretation

e. Rational V. Subjectivity

(A) a–II, b–I, c–III, d–V, e–IV

(B) a–V, b–IV, c–III, d–II, e–I

(D) a–I, b–III, c–V, d–IV, e–II

7 / 100

97. The term ‘Geopiety’ was coined by whom?

(A) C.O. Sauer

(B) A. Buttimer

(D) Yi-Fu Tuan

8 / 100

96. Which of the following are basic elements in Peter

Haggett’s model for the Study of Spatial Systems?

(I) Channels (II) Diffusion (III) Hierarchies

(IV) Movements (V) Surfaces

Codes:

(A) (I) and (II)

(B) (I), (II) and (IV)

(D) (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V)

9 / 100

95. The ‘Rimland Theory’ was propounded by whom

among the following?

(A) Bernard Grofman

(B) Richard Morrill

(D) Nicholas Spykman

10 / 100

94. The Globe was divided into ‘geostrategic realms’

by whom?

(A) Bassin

(B) Cohen

(D) Parker

11 / 100

93. Lahars are best described as mass-movement

features associated with

(A) Volcanoes

(B) Mud banks

(D) Landslide scars

12 / 100

92. Compared to true dip, the value of apparent dip of

a sedimentary stratum is

(A) either higher or lower.

(B) always higher.

(D) different by 90º in strike direction.

13 / 100

91. The time interval between two steady state or

equilibrium conditions is called

(A) Relaxation time

(B) Steady time

(D) Alteration time

14 / 100

90. Shingles are the water-worn rounded stones,

usually associated with

(A) Fluvial process

(B) Glacial process

(D) Marine process

15 / 100

89. Residual Hums landscape feature is found in

(A) Karst topography

(B) Desert landscape

(D) Areas of marine transgression

16 / 100

88. A continuous spiral motion of water as it flows

along a river channel is termed as

(A) Helical flow

(B) Laminer flow

(D) Base flow

17 / 100

87. The concept of ‘Lebensraum’ in Political

Geography refers to

(A) a living space sought for occupation by a nation with expanding population.

(B) a territory not occupied by any nation.

(D) a boundary area with rich natural resources.

18 / 100

86. Past records of sea-level changes are best

deciphered from

(A) Sandy coasts

(B) Rocky coasts

(D) Ice-fringed coasts

19 / 100

85. The average global rate of sea-level rise as present

is about

(A) 1·6 mm/yr

(B) 2·1 mm/yr

(D) 3·3 mm/yr

20 / 100

84. The CaCO3

compensation depth in seas is

usually about

(A) 4,000 m

(B) 4,500 m

(D) 5,500 m

21 / 100

83. Which of the following types of tides have the

highest amplitude given the other factors remaining the

same?

(A) Spring tides

(B) Perigean neap tides

(D) Apogean spring tides

22 / 100

82. In which part of the oceans and seas oozes are

quite uncommon in their occurences?

(A) Abyssal plain

(B) Oceanic deeps

(D) Submarine canyons

23 / 100

81. The third stage of demographic transition is marked

(A) declining birth rate and low population growth.

(B) high birth and death rates.

(D) high natural increase of population.

24 / 100

80. Two-thirds of the world population live in

(A) the northern hemisphere.

(D) the temperate areas of the world.

25 / 100

79. Which district of West Bengal among the

following has the highest concentration of Sabaras?

(A) Purulia

(B) Bankura

(D) Jhargram

26 / 100

78. For small distance migration, female migration

overtakes male due to

(A) demographic structure of the society.

(B) occupational structure of the society.

(D) patriarchal structure of the society.

27 / 100

76. The Boserupian theory of population growth is

most appropriate for which society?

(A) All societies

(B) Developed societies

(D) Bourgeoise society

28 / 100

59. The growth centre programme to promote
industrialisation of backward areas in India was introduced
in which year?

(A) 1951

(B) 1973

(D) 1991

29 / 100

75. ‘Fecundity’ is

(A) Capacity to reproduce

(B) Actual reproductive performance

(D) Inability to reproduce

30 / 100

74. Gowth of population through the successive stage of

‘Demographic Transition Model’ has the appearance of a

(A) Geometric curve

(B) Exponential curve

(D) Parabolic curve

31 / 100

73. Which one is considered as the best combination

as precondition of pre-industrial urban growth?

(A) Population–Environment–Technology– Social organization

(B) Population–Political organization–Social Organization–Technology–Trade

(D) Population–Trade–Transport–Political Organization

32 / 100

72. Which one of the following rural settlements has

the best road network?

(A) Street village

(B) Peri-urban village

(D) Cruciform village

33 / 100

71. As per the classification of towns by the Census of

India 2011, Class-III towns have a population of

(A) 50,000 to 99,999

(B) 20,000 to 49,999

(D) 5,000 to 9,999

34 / 100

70. Which among the following is odd?

(A) Mercantile model : Vance

(B) Metropolitan evolution : Borchert

(D) Central Place theory : Christaller

35 / 100

69. Who introduced the idea of ‘Garden City’?

(A) Le Corbusier

(B) Robert Owen

(D) Fran Llyod Wright

36 / 100

68. The ‘Multiple Nuclei Model’ states that

(A) urban land use shows a series of circular belts around the city centre.

(B) cities do not develop any recognizable zones of land use.

(D) cities develop several nodes of growth each with specialised use.

37 / 100

67. The classic essay “The Tragedy of the Commons”

was written by

(A) David Harvey

(B) Charles Darwin

(D) Garrett Hardin

38 / 100

66. Which of the following activities is performed

quite close to the market as per Von Thunen’s model of

Agricultural Location?

(A) Extensive grain farming

(B) Dairying and market gardening

(D) Extensive stock raising

39 / 100

65. Which of the following characterises Mixed

Farming?

(A) Practice of cultivation of crops and raising livestock simultaneously.

(B) Practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously in the same field.

(D) Practice of raising alternate crops successively for subsistence and marketing.

40 / 100

64. The abstract belief systems that pass over from

generation to generation is called

(A) Artifact

(B) Mentifact

(D) Cultural diffusion

41 / 100

63. The theory of Mobility Transition Model is

conditioned by

(A) birth rate, death rate and migration of population of a region.

(B) birth rate and death rate of a region.

(D) import, export and capital flow.

42 / 100

62. Which one of the following is not the essential

characteristics of post-Fordism?

(A) Reliance on e-transaction of capital

(B) Reliance on heavy industries

(D) Reliance on share market

43 / 100

61. The Second Five Year Plan in India was based on

(A) Herold-Domar Model

(B) P.C. Mahalanobis Model

(D) A.R. Kuklinski Model

44 / 100

60. The data of estimation of India’s National Income

is issued by

(A) Census of India

(B) National Data Centre

(D) NITI Aayog

45 / 100

58. The Hill Areas Development Programme in India

was initiated during

(A) the Seventh 5 Year Plan Period.

(B) the Second 5 Year Plan Period.

(D) the Fifth 5 Year Plan Period.

46 / 100

57. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?

(A) Isobar–Pressure

(B) Isotherm–Temperature

(D) Isohytes–Rainfall

47 / 100

56. The ‘γ’ value of a correlation coefficient varies

between

(A) + 1·0 to –1·0

(B) 0 to + 1·0

(D) 1·00 to 10·0

48 / 100

55. ‘Fordism’ is used to describe

(A) manufacturing technique only.

(B) societal condition only.

(D) Both (A) and (B)

49 / 100

54. In which of the following continents the range of

temperatures ever recorded had been the minimum?

(A) Asia

(B) Africa

(D) Antarctica

50 / 100

52. Which of the following geological era is associated

with the folding of the Himalayan mountain system?

(A) Caenozoic

(B) Mesozoic

(D) Azoic

51 / 100

51. Due to presence of natural levee of main stream,

tributary of the main stream sometimes may flow parallel

to the main stream before joining is called

(A) Anabranching stream

(B) Braided channel

(D) Anastomosing channel

52 / 100

49. Field capacity with reference to soil-water-plant

relationships refers to

(A) Capillary water

(B) Capillary and hygroscopic water

(D) Capillary, hygroscopic, confined water and water vapour

53 / 100

48. Which of the following correctly describes the

characteristics of deep ecology?

1. Holistic view

2. Anthropocentric environmentalism

3. Green movements

4. Simple living

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

54 / 100

47. The major agricultural regions of the world were

first identified by

(A) Johann Heinrich von Thunen

(B) Derwent Wittlesey

(D) David Grigg

55 / 100

46. Scholastic relationship under bivariate analysis is

primarily a

(A) Probable relationship

(B) Estimated relationship

(D) Non-linear relationship

56 / 100

45. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) was

first introduced in which country?

(A) Canada

(B) Sweden

(D) U.S.A.

57 / 100

44. Who used ‘Grand Theory’ for the first time?

(A) D. Harvey

(B) M. Foucault

(D) T. Parsons

58 / 100

43. La Terre is authored by whom of the following?

(A) Réclus

(B) Kropotkin

(D) Huxley

59 / 100

42. The social theory that appeared as the sequel to

Behaviouralism is

(A) Radicalism

(B) Structuralism

(D) Feminism

60 / 100

41. Darwinism in Social Ecology was first applied by

(A) W. M. Davis

(B) T. H. Huxley

(D) Carl O. Sauer

61 / 100

40. In articulating the idea of ‘Possibilism’ La Blache

was influenced by the idea of

(A) Cosmos of Humboldt

(B) Anthropogeography of Ratzel

(D) The Morphology of Landscape of Sauer

62 / 100

39. Law of stream number confirms to the

mathematical model of

(A) Positive Exponential Function

(B) Negative Exponential Function

(D) Negative Arithmatic Function

63 / 100

38. In a socio-economic survey when data is collected

through a questionnaire in the form of a natural order

like— high, medium and low, such data is classified as

(A) Nominal Data

(B) Ordinal Data

(D) Ratio Data

64 / 100

37. Consider the following statements:

Short duration leptokurtic storm hydrograph is

produced at the outlet of a drainage basin when

1. the shape of the basin is circular.

2. the intensity of rainfall is very high.

3. the average slope is less.

4. the drainage density is high.

Which of the above statements is correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3 and 4

(D) 2 and 3

65 / 100

36. Ecotone is an area that can be depicted by

quantitative method through

(A) Neutral Set

(B) Singular Set

(D) Union Set

66 / 100

35. Which one of the following methods is considered

as the segregated set of relationship among the factors of

an event?

(A) Flow Analysis

(B) Principal Component Analysis

(D) Gravity Analysis

67 / 100

34. Transportation cost does not play a major role in

the location of textile industry, because

(A) cotton is a weight loosing material.

(B) cotton is a weight gaining material.

(D) weight of cotton is more or less equal to the weight of the finished product.

68 / 100

33. Assertion (A): Portions of glacial troughs may

exhibit remarkably flat floors.

Reason (R) : The flat floor in a glacial trough is

produced by uniform glacial

erosion.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

69 / 100

32. Trunks of trees growing on the banks of natural

water bodies are often seen to take U-shaped bends. This

primarily occurs due to

(A) Phototropism

(B) Gravitropism

(D) Creep of the bank materials

70 / 100

31. In a periglacial environment, pingos form due to

(A) Ice wedge coalescence

(B) Ice core growth

(D) Ice penetration from active zone

71 / 100

30. Superimposed profile is drawn to understand the

(A) break of slope.

(B) ruggedness of topography.

(D) cyclic nature of landscape.

72 / 100

29. When two meander necks do not come closer but

a channel from one neck joins to other and the main flow

turns on that channel is termed as

(A) Parallel channel flow

(B) Semi-neck cut off

(D) Non-neck cut off

73 / 100

28. Arrange the following concepts in order in which

they evolved. Select the correct answer from the codes

given below the concepts.

I. Principle of Uniformitarianism

II. Theory of Continental Drift

III. Dynamic Equilibrium Theory

IV. Theory of Convection Current

Codes:

(A) (I) (III) (IV) (II)

(B) (II) (I) (IV) (III)

(D) (I) (II) (IV) (III)

74 / 100

27. Assertion (A): By far the most common and

widespread topographic form in a

Karst terrain is the sinkhole.

Reason (R) : Topographically, a sinkhole is a

depression that varies in depth from

less than a meter to few hundred

meters.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

75 / 100

26. Rock-walled steep depressions caused by the
collapse of ground surface in Karst geomorphology is
called as

(A) Cockpits

(B) Poljes

(D) Sinkholes

76 / 100

25. Which of the following features is the indication
of a rejuvenation process in a river valley?

(A) Braiding stream

(B) Structural terrace

(D) Entrenched meanders

77 / 100

24. Which of the following is the most ideal conditions
for the chemical weathering of rocks?

(A) Cold and dry climate

(B) Hot and humid climate

(D) Cold and humid climate

78 / 100

23. A river’s channel pattern may alter from braided
to meandering due to the following change in its
catchment area:

(A) Increase in rainfall

(B) Decrease in rainfall

(D) Deforestation

79 / 100

22. The most significant plate-driving force is
considered to be

(A) Ridge-push

(B) Slab-pull

(D) Trench suction

80 / 100

21. Form a group of three most closely-related words
by selecting one from each of the three columns.
(a) Kerghelen (e) Continental (i) Ninety east
Hotspot convergence Ridge
(b) Central Asia (f) Eruption of (j) Formation of
ocean island Pangaea
basalt
(c) Red Sea (g) Strike-slip (k) Normal
faults faults
(d) Appalachian (h) Continental (l) Indentation
mountain rifting tectonics

(A) a-f-j; b-e-i; c-h-k; d-g-i

(B) a-f-k; b-g-i; c-h-i; d-e-j

(D) a-h-i; b-g-j; c-f-k; d-e-l

81 / 100

20. Assertion (A): Mackinder’s theory of Heartland
put forward a key formula “who
rules Europe, commands the
Heartland; who rules Heartland,
commands the World Island; who
rules the World Island command
the world.”
Reason (R) : Mackinder’s formula offered
Stalin’s strategy for territorial
expansion and international
supremacy

A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

82 / 100

19. Which among the following is/are the major
factor/factors responsible for the monsoon type of
climate in India?
1. Location
2. Thermal contrast
3. Upper air circulation
4. Inter-tropical convergence zone
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

83 / 100

18. Which of the following conditions are favourable
for the formation of dew?
1. Nocturnal radiative cooling below dew point
temperature of the air resting near earth’s surface.
2. Warm previous day to raise the moisture content
of air.
3. Calm evening without turbulence in the
atmosphere.
4. Clear sky.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

84 / 100

17. Images from which of the following Satellites
does not provide information on weather elements?

(A) RESOURCESAT-I

(B) INSAT-1

(D) NOAA

85 / 100

16. The correct sequence of the cloud types with
height from the ground level is

(A) Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus, Stratocumulus, Cumulus

(B) Cumulus, Stratocumulus, Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus

(D) Cumulus, Altocumulus, Cirrocumulus, Stratocumulus

86 / 100

15. The ratio of the weight of water vapour in a parcel
of the atmosphere to the total weight of moist air is

(A) Specific humidity

(B) Absolute humidity

(D) Mixing ratio

87 / 100

14. Geostrophic Wind is originated when

(A) pressure gradient force is equal to Coriolis force.

(B) pressure gradient force is balanced by Coriolis force acting in opposite direction.

(D) divergence is equal to convergence.

88 / 100

13. Greta Thurnberg, who delivered a sensational
speech on a panel at the UN climate summit in New York
on 23 September 2019 is a citizen of

(A) Sweden

(B) Iceland

(D) Finland

89 / 100

12. As per India Meteorological Department (IMD)
which of the following statements is true?
1. July is the rainiest month in India.
2. Withdrawal of the South-West Monsoon and
setting in of Winter Monsoon take place in the
middle of October.
3. The South-West Monsoon usually covers the
whole country by the end of July.
4. June to September is the normal period of
occurence of the South-West Monsoon.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

90 / 100

11. Between which of the following mountain ranges
the valley of Kashmir is situated?

(A) The Karakoram and the Pir Panjal Ranges

(B) The Pir Panjal and the Zaskar Ranges

(D) The Kirthar and the Sulaiman Ranges

91 / 100

10. A lake created by meteorite impact in India is

(A) Lonar

(B) Sambar

(D) Loktak

92 / 100

9. Which of the following countries has the longest
stretch of the proposed Asian Highway Network?

(A) Kazakhstan

(B) Iran

(D) Thailand

93 / 100

8. Which one of the following is the main source of
CO pollution by human practices?

(A) Heavy Industries

(B) Automobile Industries

(D) Mining Activities

94 / 100

7. Assertion (A): Soil management is fundamental
to agricultural system.
Reason (R) : Managing the soil nutrients, water
and air within soil system is
fundamental to plants’ growth.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

95 / 100

6. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

(A) Methane

(B) Argon

(D) Water vapour

96 / 100

5. The luxurient growth of natural vegetation in
tropical rain forests is due to
1. the fertile soil.
2. hot and wet weather throughout the year.
3. the intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

D) 2, 3 and 4

97 / 100

4. Which of the following leaf modifications occur
in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Drip-tip leaves
4. Thorn instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

98 / 100

3. The terms ‘Pedocals’ and ‘Pedalfers’ were first
proposed by

(A) Hilgard

(B) Marbut

(D) Neustreuev

99 / 100

2. The following two lists state the name of Bird
Sanctuaries and the States where they are situated.
Match the Bird Sanctuary with their respective State.
List-I (Bird Sanctuary) List-II (Name of States)
(a) Sultanpur (i) Hariyana
(b) Bharatpur (ii) Rajasthan
(c) Nawabganj (iii) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Ranganthithu (iv) Karnataka
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

100 / 100

1. Green data book containing a list of

(A) Rare plant species

(B) Rare plants and animals

(D) Extinct animal only

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The average score is 53%

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