1. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

2. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.

Select the correct code for your answer:

3. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules

(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens

(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below:

4. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message?

5. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

6. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Codes:

7. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.

(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Codes:

8. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?

(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.

(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.

(c) It is an accounting exercise.

(d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

9. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:

10. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(c) Low value addition

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Codes:

11. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?

P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

12. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

13. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

14. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this?

15. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) wasteland development

(c) dam and water holding structures

(d) brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

16. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

17. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.

Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

18. The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016.

Answer questions 31 – 35 based on the data contained in the table.

The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?

19. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

20. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

21. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:

22. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

24. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

Set – I (Method of teaching)

(a) Lecturing

(b) Discussion in groups

(c) Brainstorming

(d) Programmed Instructional procedure

Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)

(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided

(ii) Production of large number of ideas

(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language

(iv) Use of teaching-aids

(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Code:

25.

What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 – 2016?

26. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

27. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

28. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ________, … is

29. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:

30. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

31.  In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

32. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:

33. The advantage if technological inputs would result in:

34. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:

(a) Kilobyte

(b) byte

(c) Megabyte

(d) Terabyte

(e) Gigabyte

(f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code:

35. There are two sets given below.

Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set – I (Research types)

(a) Fundamental research

(b) Applied research

(c) Action research

(d) Evaluative research

Set – II (Characteristics)

(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions

(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations

(v) Enriching technological resources

Codes:

36. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

37. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:

(a) the central information Commissioner

(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner

(c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission

(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for women

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

38. More productive employment demands:

39. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

40. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

41.  

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15:

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimensions, time, and offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?

(a) Aspirations of people

(b) Modern day dynamism

(c) Economy in the global context

(d) Strategic interests

Code:

42. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?

P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.

Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.

43. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?

44. Envisioning a developed India requires:

45. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:

(a) The United States of America

(b) Australia

(c) China

(d) United Kingdom (UK)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

46. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

47. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

48. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code:

49. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).

Premises:

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code:

50. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Codes:

1. Among the following scholars, who introduced the concept of ‘Least-Transport-Cost Location’ using the frame of ‘Location triangle’?

2. In which one of the following book/work did Mackinder in 1919 renamed his theory of ‘pivot area’ as ‘Heartland’?

3. Which one of the following scales is correctly measure the rank-size distribution of settlements?

4. Who among the following scholars emphasized on the Behavioural Approach in Geography?

5. The American climotologist C.W.Thornthwaite revised the scheme of the classification of world climates in which one of the following years?

6. Which of the following scholars is the proponent of the turbidity current theory on origin of submarine canyons?

7. Peternoster Lakes are:

8. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Economy)                                           

(a) Subsistence Economy

(b) Commercial Economy

(c) Intensive Subsistence Economy

(d) Extensive Subsistence Economy

List-II (Features)

(i) Market competition as primary force shaping the production patterns

(ii) Self-sufficiency, low production an low population density

(iii) Self-sufficiency, high production and high population density

(iv) Little exchange of goods and only limited need for markets

9. Which one of the following is correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?

10. Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh is known for which one of the following are deposits?

11. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

 List-I (Ocean Trench)               

(a) Tonga

(b) Kuril Kamchatka

(c) Philippine

(d) Romanche

List-II (Depth in meters)

(i) 7760

(ii) 10540

(iii) 10880

(iv) 10500

12. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Country)                        

(a) Luxembourg

(b) Algeria

(c) Chile

(d) Kazakistan

List-II (Official Language)

(i) Arabic

(ii) Russian

(iii) French

(iv) Spanish

13. Who among the following scholars laid down the foundation of dichotomy of general versus special geography?

14. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Countires)          

(a) Liberia

(b) Guinea

(c) Togo

(d) Niger

List-II (Mineral Reserve)

(i) Argentina

(ii) Sri Lanka

(iii) New Zealand

(iv) Mangolia

15. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A perspective plan may also be termed as long term plan

(2) Perspective plans are prepared for a period of 20-25 years

(3) A perspective plan do not ensure flexibility

(4) Perspective plan ensure spatial integration of plans at different hierarchical levels.

16.  Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) A perspective plan may also be termed as long term plan

(2) Perspective plans are prepared for a period of 20-25 years

(3) A perspective plan do not ensure flexibility

(4) Perspective plan ensure spatial integration of plans at different hierarchical levels.

Code:

17. The subsidence theory related to the coral reef was propounded by:

18. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I  (Map Type)                     

(a) Chorochromatic

(b) Choroschematic

(c) Choropleth

(d) Isopleth

List-II (Information Content)

(i) Showing regional variation in distribution by shades

(ii) areal distribution by Tints

(iii) showing imaginary lines joining places of equal value

(iv) areal distribution by symbols

19. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Name of scholars developed scheme For delineation of planning regions)          

(a) Bhat and Prakasarao

(b) P. Sengupta

(c) C.S Chandrasekhar

(d) V. Nath

List-II (Period of being planned)

(i) 42

(ii) 35

(iii) 48

(iv) 51

Code:

20. Which one of the following groups of states in Indian recorded Sex Ratio higher than 950 according to year 2011 census?

21. Which school of thought first developed the idea of possiblism?

22. Which one of the following groups of natural elements in living matters make up more than 99% of Earth’s biomass?

23. Which one of the followings is the correct average range of worldwide variations is sea water salinity?

24. Ice Cryatal Theory related to precipitation was postulated by:

25. Which of the following pairs does not match?

Authors                     Book

26. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Whitlessey’ Agricultural Religions)       

(a) Commercial Dairy Farming

(b) Commercial Grain Farming

(c) Nomadic Herding

(d) Commericial Plantations

List-II (Name of Countries)

(i)  Argentina

(ii) Sri Lanka

(iii) New Zealand

(iv) Mangolia

27. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Names of Books)  

(a) Human Universals

(b) The Social Conquest of the Earth

(c) Not by Gene Alone

(d) Coevolution

List-II (Names of Authors)

(i) W.H. Durham

(ii) Donald E. Brown

(iii) Edward O-Wilson

28. ‘The same environment carries different meanings to people with different ways of living and culture’. This statement is related to which one of the following concepts?

29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): In low latitudes, sea water in the deep cold zone does not freeze.

Reason (R): The deep sea water does not remain under intense pressure because of its high salinity.

30.  The Organic Theory of state was propounded by:

31. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Name of City)                  

(a) Kanchipuram

(b) Jaisalmer

(c) Kodaikanal

(d) Bhilai

List-II (Period of being planned)

(i) Post-Independence

(ii) Colonial

(iii) Medieval

(iv) Ancient

32. The Hydraulic Slope Theory was propunded by:

33. “The dominant idea of all geographical progress is that of terrestrial unity”. This statement is attributed to:

34. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I  (Instrument)

(i) Soil density

(ii) Radiant energy

(iii) Relative Humidity

(iv) Distance

35. Which one of the following countries holds the first rank in commercial dairy farming?

36. Which one of the following instrument is used for determination of degree of stability or instability of an air parcel?

37. In a frequency distribution of X series having 6 integers wth missing one, X_i, among them, the parameters of calculating mean, X̅, are as ∑fx = 370 (excluding frequency of missing X_i which is f_i=10) ∑f=58 (including frequency of missing integer) and X̅ = 7.586. Which one of the following inters is approximately correct for missing X_i?

38. Which one of the following is correct sequences of various EMR spectrum bands in an ascending order of wavelength?

39. Which one of the following code is correct Rn value of the given distribution of 6 settlements of an area of gentle topography?

40. Which one of the following countries recorded highest population density as per U.N. Demographic Year Book, 2010?

41. Who among the following architect-planner prepared Master Plan for Chandigrah City?

42. The direction of a horizontal line on an inclined rock strata is termed as:

43. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Emitter) 

(a) Decaying plants

(b) Volcanoes

(c) Oceans

(d) Forest fires

List-II (Emitted Products)

(i) Carbon monoxide

(ii) Salt spray

(iii) Hydrogen sulphide

(iv) Sulfur oxides

44. The concept of panplan was propagated by:

45. Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of developmnt?

46. In which of the following directions the Nazca Plate is moving?

47.  Which one of the following statements is not true about the concept of developmnt?

48. The U.N. Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro during June 3- 14, 1992 was chaired by:

49. Read the following statements and select the correct answer using the code giver below:

(a) Summation of ranks method is best suited to measure development levels, when data used are highly skewed

(b) Summation of ranks method is quite simple and easy to handle

(c) Z-score method is the robust and most reliable among all the methods used to measure levels of development

(d) Use of Principal Component Analysis method should be avoided if inter-correlation among different components of development weak or doubtful

50. On a topographical map of 1:50,000 scale the contour interval is given as 10 meters. Place ‘A’ is situated on a contour of 200 m MSL and another place ‘B’ is located on a contour of 240m MSL. The distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ on the map is 4.0 cms. The correct gradiant between ‘A’ and ‘B’ therefore would be:

51. The term ‘Cosmography’ was coined and divided into ‘Uranography’ and Geography by:

52. Adityapur Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is fasmous for:

53. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Radars are considered active sensors.

Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.

Code:

54. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between the:

55. Which one of the following sequences is the correct one in a littoral zone from land to sea?

56. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Antartica is constantly snow-covered but receives less than 8cm annual precipitatiuon.

Reason (R): Constant speedy wind blow in Antarctica.

Code:

57. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The partition of India in 1947 provided an impetus for town planning activities in the country.

Reason (R): Resettlement of displaced persons and providing them employment opportunities created a big opportunity before the town planners to construct new town and make provision of amenities and facilities in existing towns especially in north Indian states.

58. The book ‘Geography of Peace’ is authored written by:

59. Which one of the following conditions Alfred Weber introduced in his concept of ‘Locational Triangle’?

60. Which one of the following in the correct sequences of German geographers contributing to the developemnt of geographical thought?

61. Which one of the following statements indicates to the potential use of a service at a location according to Gravity Model?

62. Which one of the followings is the main source for a vast reservoir of relatively inert nitrogen in homosphere?

63. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the selection indicators for conducting any study of development process?

64. Which one of the following equations represents a true mathematical characteristics of mean?

65. Which one of the following dates is correct for the normal withdrawal of south-west monsoon from Indian Territory?

66. The formulawhere PI= Agricultural Productivity Index; Y= Total production of selected crops in unit area; Yn= Total production of same selected crops at national level; T= Total cropped area of the unit; Tn = Total cropped area at national scale.

67. Which one of the following criteria was used to delineate the National Capital Region for planning purpose?

68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): India has not been able to bridge its trade deficity.

Reason (R): India’s exports in terms of value has been declining.

69. Which one of the following states in India recored the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?

70. Which one of the following Models is explained by the given figure below?

71. Which one among the following perspectives was responsible for radical transformation in the sprit and purpose of geography?

72. Which one of the following code is correctly depicting the pattern of distribution of population among cities by ‘d’ curve in the given graph?

Code:

73. Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the threshold according to Central Place Model?

74. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I  (Force)   

(a) Coriolis

(b) Tidal

(c) Friction

(d) Resisting

List-II (Source)

(i) Earth’s gravity

(ii) Topographic differences

(iii) Static state

(iv) Earth’s rotation

Code:

75.

1. Which one of the following factors most dominants in the selections of high- tech firms of Silicon Valley in California?

76. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Process)

(a) Decomposition

(b) Transpiration

(c) Respiration

(d) Photosynthesis

List-II (Outcome)

(i) CO2

(ii) O2

(iii) CH4

(iv) Water Vapour

77. Whose works epitomized the relationship or political geography with foreign policy?

78. The Rimmer model for the development of land transport system in less developed economics was proposd in which of the following years?

79. Which one of the following years the modern cotton textile mill was first of all established in Maharashtra?

80. The present is the key to the past.” This phase is related to the concept of:

81. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Radars are considered active sensors.

Reason (R): These sensors detect objects and their ranges using radio waves.

Code:

82.  In India how many are the officially recognised languages?

83. Which one of the following groups of states of India recorded more than one fourth of total population of the country in the census year 2011?

84. Which one of the following organisations looks after the receiving and processing of remote sensing data in India?

85. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Name of Dams)                

(a) Mayurkashi

(b) Mettur

(c) Nagarjunasagar

(d) Hirakud

List-II (States)

(i) Tamil Nadu

(ii) Andhra Pradesh

(iii) Odisha

86. Which one of the following latitudes s known as the ‘Calms of Cancer’?

87. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Demographic terms)                  

(a) Cohart

(b) Natural increase

(c) Total fertlity rate

(d) Dependency ratio

List-II (Explanation)

(i) birth rate minus deah rate

(ii) A population group unified by a specific common characteristic

(iii) Average number of children that a woman will bear through her child bearing years

(iv) Measure in terms of number of dependants against productive age groups

88.

Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Country)                        

(a) Luxembourg

(b) Algeria

(c) Chile

(d) Kazakistan

List-II (Official Language)

(i) Arabic

(ii) Russian

(iii) French

(iv) Spanish

89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): Energy flow shifts from production to respiration in the entrophic stage, with oxygen demand exceeding oxygen availability.

Reason (R): Stratospheric ozone layer depletion causes skin diseases.

90. Which of the following catagories does Chile belong to its physical shape?

91. Which of the following characteristic features are possessed by the Nordic race of India?

92. A set of sample of 20 places of mean annual rainfall were randomly selected from a normally distributed universe that has mean rainfall of 320 cm. The sample mean was recorded 250 cm with standard of 150 cm. Which one of the following significance tests is correct for the selected samples?

93. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A): The monsoon of southern and eastern Asia driven by the location and size of the Asian landmass and it

Reason (R): The wind and pressure patterns in the upper air circulation are associated with generation of monsoonal flows.

94. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Sectors of the Economy)      

(a) Primary

(b) Secondary

(c) Tertiary

(d) Quaternary

List-II (Activities)

(i) Research endavours

(ii) Train services

(iii) Pearl culture

(iv) Spinning cotton year

95. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Dimension of development)              

(a) Economic

(b) Social

(c) Political

(d) Ecological and Environmental

List-II (Indicator of development)

(i) Percentage of reclaimed land to total waste land

(ii) Percentage of minority voters to total minority electors

(iii) Percentage of female literates to total female population

(iv) Agriculture production per hectare

96. The concept of geosyncline was propounded by:

97.

Which one of the following criteria was used to demarcate 15 agroclimatic regions, which were accepted by the Planning Commission of India (now NITI Aayog) to initiate regional approach to agricultural planning during the eighth Five-Year Plan?

98. Jharkhand ranks third after which one of the following group of states in the availability of coal reserves in India?

99. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Thornthwait’s Temperature Provinces)       

(a) Mesothermal

(b) Microthermal

(c) Taiga

(d) Tundra

List-II (T/E Index Values)

(i) 16-31

(ii) 1-15

(iii) 64-127

(iv) 32-63

100. Match the List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List – I (Settlement Alignment)

List – II (Settlement Pattern)

(i) Uniform

(ii) Star Shaped

(iii) Linear

(iv) Cluster

Code: